Something confused me when I was trying to calculate the optimum source impedance for for an opamp stage at the front-end of a mic preamp.
As I understand it, the optimum impedance is the opamp's voltage noise divided by its current noise.
This gives a reasonable value for an NE5534:
Vn = 4nV/Rt. Hz @1KHz
In = 0.6pA/Rt. Hz @1KHz
So, optimum source impedance = 6.7K
That seems reasonable, but when I apply this to the OPA604, I get a figure which seems a bit unbelievable to me... :
Vn = 11nV/Rt. Hz @1KHz
In = 4fA/Rt. Hz @1KHz
Femto amps?.....
So, optimum source impedance here = 2.75M....... MegaOhms?...
What have I got wrong?
As I understand it, the optimum impedance is the opamp's voltage noise divided by its current noise.
This gives a reasonable value for an NE5534:
Vn = 4nV/Rt. Hz @1KHz
In = 0.6pA/Rt. Hz @1KHz
So, optimum source impedance = 6.7K
That seems reasonable, but when I apply this to the OPA604, I get a figure which seems a bit unbelievable to me... :
Vn = 11nV/Rt. Hz @1KHz
In = 4fA/Rt. Hz @1KHz
Femto amps?.....
So, optimum source impedance here = 2.75M....... MegaOhms?...
What have I got wrong?