john12ax7 said:
But from what I've seen there is indeed a correlation that makes sense, logically. It isn't just the amount of guns owned that is the issue, because there's a lot more "stockpiling" of guns now than before. The other issue is just how many individuals (households) own weapons. When that figure drops, so does gun violence. And it makes sense if we're counting incidents, because you don't get more incidents just by virtue of a "household" having 10 guns instead of 1 or 2.
Guns vs gun violence is an issue people focus on, but why? If there are more cars there are more car accidents. Logically more of something leads to more use and abuse.
The actual question is do guns affect the rates of violent crime. This is much more murky. Is the US more like Europe, Asia, Africa, South America? It's not an easy answer.
According to the info on Australia it does affect the rates of violent crime in that while incidents of mass shootings and gun violence dropped it wasn't negated by people using different means instead.
But you're also avoiding the issue of the efficiency of that violence. While you can certainly kill people with a knife I think there's a good reason why the worst mass murders in the US have taken place using guns of different kinds. So even if the rate remained the same, i.e. the amount of violent crime
incidents remained the same, it would be an acceptable argument that fewer people got hurt as bad as with more guns involved.
john12ax7 said:
If you look at the US on a state by state basis the data is essentially flat. Gun ownership doesn't actually affect the rates of violent crime.
Yes it does, you just bypassed what I wrote that you quoted. If the data is just "gun ownership" then typically in order to come to the conclusion you listed above it's the total amount of weapons owned relative to rates of crime. But as I said, it's of lesser relevance than how many people actually own weapons, not how many they own.
If in a state you have
- 1,000 incidents and
- 1,000 criminals using
- 1 gun each, out of
- 100,000 people owning 1 gun each, in the year 2000, and then you have
- 500 incidents and
- 500 criminals using
- 1 gun each, out of
- 50,000 people owning 3 guns each, in the year 2016, then you will see the pro-gun lobbyists telling people that increased gun ownership (150,000 arms compared to only 100,000) decreased crime. In other words they'll argue that guns are part of the solution. But they ignore that fewer people owned more weapons. The more people that own (or have access to) weapons the bigger the risk.
See my point?